Are you preparing for UPSC CSE 2026 Prelims? Check your progress and revise your topics through this quiz on Polity and Governance.
UPSC Lifebloods brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.
QUESTION 1
The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of —
1. elected members of both Houses of Parliament
2. nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
3. elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
4. elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Relevance: The composition of the Electoral College of the President is a frequently tested static polity topic in UPSC Prelims. It strengthens conceptual clarity on constitutional procedures related to high offices like the President. Students must also read how the Vice-President is elected.
Explanation:
— The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of —
(a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and
(b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, including Union territory of Delhi and Puducherry.
— Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are not part of the Electoral College.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(Source: Constitution of India)
QUESTION 2
Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the “one person, one vote, one value” principle?
(a) Article 327
(b) Article 326
(c) Article 81
(d) Article 86
Relevance: It helps in understanding concepts behind delimitation and fair representation. It can be useful for eliminating options by linking constitutional articles with core democratic principles.
Explanation:
— Article 81 of the Constitution provides for the “one person, one vote, one value” principle. Article 81 (2) (a) says, “There shall be allotted to each State a number of seats in the House of the People in such manner that the ratio between that number and the population of the state is, so far as practicable, the same for all States.”
— Article 81 (2) (b) says, “Each State shall be divided into territorial constituencies in such manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and number of seats allotted to it is, so far as practicable, the same throughout the State.”
— The only exception the Article makes to the norm is for very small states with a population not exceeding 6 million, so that they can still get proper representation in the Lower House despite their small population.
— Article 82 of the Constitution states: “Upon the completion of each census, the allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the division of each State into territorial constituencies shall be readjusted by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine.”
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 3
With reference to the adoptive mothers, consider the following statements:
1. The mothers who adopt a child shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over to her.
2. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and its successor, the Code of Social Security, 2020, were both amended to include adoptive mothers within the scope of maternity leave.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.
Relevance: The issues related to maternity benefits and labour welfare are important for UPSC Prelims. It also reflects the government’s focus on social justice, gender equity, and inclusive policy design.
Explanation:
— The Supreme Court held that motherhood under the law cannot depend on the age of a child at the time of adoption, striking down a rule that denied maternity leave to women adopting children older than three months.
— The bench comprising Justices JB Pardiwala and R Mahadevan held that the law’s three-month cut-off created an “artificial” distinction between adoptive mothers, noting that women adopting older children are “similarly situated” in terms of their “roles, responsibilities and caregiving obligations”.
— The court held that mothers who adopt a child “shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over to her.” Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and its successor, the Code of Social Security, 2020, were both amended to include adoptive mothers within the scope of maternity leave. The carve-out was that only those women who adopted a child below the age of three months would qualify for twelve weeks of leave. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— Section 60(4) of the 2020 Code states that “ a woman who legally adopts a child below the age of three months or a commissioning mother shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over.”
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 4
A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State, if he/she —
1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India
2. voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State
3. an undischarged insolvent
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Relevance: Disqualification provisions under Constitution of India are frequently tested in UPSC Prelims. It is also important for conceptual clarity on terms like office of profit, insolvency, and citizenship in exam questions. Aspirants should also read about the 10th schedule of the Constitution of India.
Explanation:
— A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule, other than an office declared by the Legislature of the State by law not to disqualify its holder;
(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(Source: Constitution of India)
QUESTION 5
Which of the following states is not covered under the Article 371 and its sub-parts of the Constitution of India for special provision?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Relevance: Questions on special provisions under Article 371 of the Constitution of India can be asked to test constitutional awareness. It is important for static polity preparation. Aspirants must be aware of such constitutional facts.
Explanation:
— Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides for the special provision with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat.
— Article 371(A) – Nagaland
— Article 371(B) – Assam
— Article 371(C) – Manipur
— Article 371(D) – Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
— Article 371(E) – Establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh
— Article 371(F) – Sikkim
— Article 371(G) – Mizoram
— Article 371(H) – Arunachal Pradesh
— Article 371(I) – Goa
— Article 371(J) – Karnataka
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(Source: Constitution of India)
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