UPSC Lifebloods brings to you its initiative for the practice of Mains answer writing. It covers essential topics of static and dynamic parts of the UPSC Civil Services syllabus covered under various GS papers. This answer-writing practice is designed to help you as a value addition to your UPSC CSE Mains. Attempt today’s answer writing on questions related to topics of GS-2 to check your progress.

QUESTION 1

What are the major areas of contention between developed and developing nations in WTO negotiations?

Relevance: The topic highlights ongoing challenges in the global trade order, especially disputes in the World Trade Organisation. It also reflects contemporary issues like protectionism, regional integration, and supply chain shifts, which can be asked in mains. It links to issues like subsidies, S&DT, and reform of multilateral institutions.

Note: This is not a model UPSC answer. It only provides you with a thought process which you may incorporate into the answers.

Introduction:

— The Director-General of the World Trade Organisation (WTO), Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala, kick-started the 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) in Cameroon with a warning, stating that the world trading system is experiencing the “worst disruptions” in 80 years.

— The developed and developing countries have arrived at MC14 with starkly different visions for the multilateral body facing a crisis of confidence, at a time when trade tensions are already running high.

Body:

You may incorporate some of the following points in your answer:

Major areas of contention between developed and developing nations in WTO negotiations

Multilateralism vs Plurilateralism

— One of the sharpest divisions between members is on how future agreements should be reached. Since its inception, the WTO has operated primarily on a consensus-based decision-making model, where all 166 members must agree on decisions. However, several developed nations are seeking plurilateral agreements, where members can sign agreements among themselves without including all countries, arguing that progress is slow in the consensus-based method.

— Developing countries such as India, Indonesia, Vietnam, and Namibia have insisted that the WTO must remain a “member-driven” and “consensus-based” organisation. India said that the incorporation of plurilateral outcomes into the WTO framework should not impair existing rights of non-parties or cast additional obligations on them. Namibia also argued that for small economies, multilateral rules are an “economic necessity”. However, the US, European Union and the UK have advocated for a “more flexible framework” that allows like-minded partners to move forward with closer cooperation when a full consensus cannot be reached.

Conflict over Special and Differential Treatment

— It is a provision in the WTO agreement that gives developing countries more time or flexibility to implement rules, such as phasing out certain subsidies.

— Developed countries have pushed for a relook at S&DT, but developing nations consider it the bedrock of multilateralism. Developing nations such as India and Namibia have maintained that S&DT is a “treaty-based right” and must be “precise, effective and operational” to enable their meaningful participation in global trade. S&DT must be safeguarded as a treaty-based right and as an enabler for developing Members to participate meaningfully in and fully benefit from the multilateral trading system.

Agriculture and e-commerce

— Consensus at the WTO on key issues has also been elusive because countries, based on their respective growth stages, are making agriculture or digital trade key priorities. While developing nations, such as India and other African countries, have raised a strong demand for food subsidies, rich countries have focused on e-commerce.

— The US, UK, and Singapore have for years prioritised the digital economy and have been pushing to make the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions (products like software) permanent to provide “certainty” for businesses. India, however, has focused on keeping this policy space intact and argued that the issue warrants “careful reconsideration” because its long-term implications for developing states are not fully understood.

Conclusion:

— However, the division is not limited to the most powerful countries. Developed, developing and Least Developed Countries (LDCs) have pitched divergent ideas on core issues such as plurilateral deals, agriculture, e-commerce moratorium, as well as dispute settlement, indicating why effective outcomes from WTO ministerials have been few and far between in recent years.

(Source: From farm to software, how fresh WTO talks expose deep faultlines between rich and developing nations)

Points to Ponder

How is rising protectionism reshaping global trade and supply chains?

What reforms are needed to strengthen WTO’s dispute resolution and negotiation mechanisms?

Related Previous Year Question

What are the key areas of reform if the WTO has to survive in the present context of ‘Trade War’, especially keeping in mind the interest of India? (2018)

QUESTION 2

Evaluate the role of trade policy in shaping India’s relations with its neighbours.

Relevance: The topic is directly related to India’s neighbourhood policy and regional diplomacy. Aspirants must focus on India’s negotiating stance in global and regional forums. It is also useful for analysing challenges in South Asian integration and bilateral ties.

Note: This is not a model UPSC answer. It only provides you with a thought process which you may incorporate into the answers.

Introduction:

— India, with its huge and growing market, technology and entrepreneurial resources, has the potential to play a significant role in accelerating industrial and economic growth in surrounding countries, particularly Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.

— Over the last five decades, India has contributed to the development of adjacent nations through various assistance initiatives, such as the ITEC programme, the plan of support to neighbouring countries, grants, technical assistance, and trade preferences, among others.

Body:

You may incorporate some of the following points in your answer:

— Bangladesh: The elections in February handed Tarique Rahman and the Bangladesh Nationalist Party a massive mandate. Over the last decade, Bangladesh has emerged as India’s most important neighbourhood partner. The deep economic interdependence built over this period appears to have survived the political toxicity of the last 20 months, but the relationship now needs fresh political impetus.

— Nepal: The sweeping victory of the Rastriya Swatantra Party and the rise of Balendra Shah mark a generational political shift. India must shed the rhetoric of a “special relationship” in favour of one grounded in equality and genuine respect for Nepal’s sovereignty.

— Sri Lanka: It has been moving toward pragmatic engagement with Delhi and breaking free from the historical political animosity that long coloured the ruling party’s relationship with India.

— Over the past two years, India has demonstrated a new willingness to negotiate ambitious trade agreements — with the United Kingdom, the European Union, the United States, and others — shedding many past shibboleths of trade policy. That same reforming instinct must now be extended to the neighbourhood.

— For decades, India’s regional trade policy has been hobbled by self-defeating protectionism. Despite the 4,000-kilometre border with Bangladesh and a narrow Palk Strait separating peninsular India from Sri Lanka, the West remains the main destination for their exports while China is the dominant source of imports. India remains Nepal’s largest trading partner — but barely.

— India objects to its massive trade deficit with China yet runs substantial surpluses with Bangladesh, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. India finds it difficult to offer its neighbours the very market access it demands from Beijing. A genuine transformation of connectivity between India, Bangladesh, and Nepal would provide a major boost to South Asia’s poorest parts in the eastern Subcontinent. This transformation will require both unilateral steps by Delhi and negotiated give-and-take.

Conclusion:

— The rapidly changing international context makes early action on neighbourhood trade urgent. This global uncertainty creates a new regional logic. For Bangladesh, Nepal, and Sri Lanka, the Indian market offers scale and proximity that no distant partner can match.

— Turbulence in the Gulf is beginning to have a deleterious impact across South Asia. As the Subcontinent’s deep energy, economic, and diasporic ties with the Gulf come under stress, India has begun supporting its neighbours with the supply of essential hydrocarbon commodities.

(Source: India must reboot neighbourhood policy — trade is the key)

Points to Ponder

What are the key barriers to deeper regional trade integration in South Asia?

Related Previous Year Questions

‘China is using its economic relations and positive trade surplus as tools to develop potential military power status in Asia’. In the light of this statement, discuss its impact on India as her neighbour. (2017)

Project ‘Mausam’ is considered a unique foreign policy initiative of Indian Government to improve relationship with its neighbours. Does the project have a strategic dimension? Discuss. (2015)

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post UPSC Lifebloods | Mains answer practice – GS 2 : WTO talks and Neighbourhood relations appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

UPSC Lifebloods brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.

QUESTION 1

The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of —

1. elected members of both Houses of Parliament

2. nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.

3. elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States

4. elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Relevance: The composition of the Electoral College of the President is a frequently tested static polity topic in UPSC Prelims. It strengthens conceptual clarity on constitutional procedures related to high offices like the President. Students must also read how the Vice-President is elected.

Explanation:

— The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of —

(a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and

(b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, including Union territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

— Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are not part of the Electoral College.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 2

Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the “one person, one vote, one value” principle?

(a) Article 327

(b) Article 326

(c) Article 81

(d) Article 86

Relevance: It helps in understanding concepts behind delimitation and fair representation. It can be useful for eliminating options by linking constitutional articles with core democratic principles.

Explanation:

— Article 81 of the Constitution provides for the “one person, one vote, one value” principle. Article 81 (2) (a) says, “There shall be allotted to each State a number of seats in the House of the People in such manner that the ratio between that number and the population of the state is, so far as practicable, the same for all States.”

— Article 81 (2) (b) says, “Each State shall be divided into territorial constituencies in such manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and number of seats allotted to it is, so far as practicable, the same throughout the State.”

— The only exception the Article makes to the norm is for very small states with a population not exceeding 6 million, so that they can still get proper representation in the Lower House despite their small population.

— Article 82 of the Constitution states: “Upon the completion of each census, the allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the division of each State into territorial constituencies shall be readjusted by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine.”

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the adoptive mothers, consider the following statements:

1. The mothers who adopt a child shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over to her.

2. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and its successor, the Code of Social Security, 2020, were both amended to include adoptive mothers within the scope of maternity leave.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Relevance: The issues related to maternity benefits and labour welfare are important for UPSC Prelims. It also reflects the government’s focus on social justice, gender equity, and inclusive policy design.

Explanation:

— The Supreme Court held that motherhood under the law cannot depend on the age of a child at the time of adoption, striking down a rule that denied maternity leave to women adopting children older than three months.

— The bench comprising Justices JB Pardiwala and R Mahadevan held that the law’s three-month cut-off created an “artificial” distinction between adoptive mothers, noting that women adopting older children are “similarly situated” in terms of their “roles, responsibilities and caregiving obligations”.

— The court held that mothers who adopt a child “shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over to her.” Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and its successor, the Code of Social Security, 2020, were both amended to include adoptive mothers within the scope of maternity leave. The carve-out was that only those women who adopted a child below the age of three months would qualify for twelve weeks of leave. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Section 60(4) of the 2020 Code states that “ a woman who legally adopts a child below the age of three months or a commissioning mother shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over.”

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State, if he/she —

1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India

2. voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State

3. an undischarged insolvent

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Relevance: Disqualification provisions under Constitution of India are frequently tested in UPSC Prelims. It is also important for conceptual clarity on terms like office of profit, insolvency, and citizenship in exam questions. Aspirants should also read about the 10th schedule of the Constitution of India.

Explanation:

— A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule, other than an office declared by the Legislature of the State by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

Which of the following states is not covered under the Article 371 and its sub-parts of the Constitution of India for special provision?

(a) Nagaland

(b) Gujarat

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Relevance: Questions on special provisions under Article 371 of the Constitution of India can be asked to test constitutional awareness. It is important for static polity preparation. Aspirants must be aware of such constitutional facts.

Explanation:

— Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides for the special provision with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat.

— Article 371(A) – Nagaland

— Article 371(B) – Assam

— Article 371(C) – Manipur

— Article 371(D) – Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

— Article 371(E) – Establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh

— Article 371(F) – Sikkim

— Article 371(G) – Mizoram

— Article 371(H) – Arunachal Pradesh

— Article 371(I) – Goa

— Article 371(J) – Karnataka

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post UPSC Lifebloods | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on electoral college of the President of India, disqualification from the Legislative Assembly and more appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

UPSC Lifebloods brings to you its initiative of subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on the Economy to check your progress.

QUESTION 1

With reference to the aviation fuel, consider the following statements:

1. Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) is a high-quality petrol-based fuel.

2. The sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) is produced from feedstocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question tests basic understanding of fuel types and classifications. It is important due to increasing focus on sustainable fuels and decarbonisation.

Explanation:

— Even as the prices of aviation turbine fuel (ATF), or jet fuel, have surged globally due to the raging West Asia war, the price of the fuel for domestic scheduled flights in India has been hiked only partially by the public sector oil marketing companies (OMCs), according to the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG).

— Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF), sometimes known as jet fuel, is a specialised, high-quality kerosene-based fuel that is refined specifically to power aircraft gas turbine engines. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) is a biofuel that is produced from sustainable feedstocks and has chemistry similar to conventional aviation turbine fuel (ATF) or jet fuel, which is derived from crude oil. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The year 2027 will be an important one for adoption of SAF globally with the mandatory phase of CORSIA kicking in. CORSIA, which applies to international flights, would require airlines globally to offset any growth in carbon dioxide emissions beyond the 2020 levels. India, too, will have to comply with the mandatory phase starting 2027. In line with the CORSIA framework, India’s National Biofuel Coordination Committee (NBCC) has set the initial indicative targets for blending of SAF with jet fuel 2027 onwards, starting with international flights. The indicative targets are: 1 per cent blending in 2027 and 2 per cent in 2028.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Special Economic Zones (SEZs), consider the following statements:

1. The functioning of the SEZs is governed by a three tier administrative set up.

2. All the proposals for setting up of units in the SEZ are approved at the Zone level.

3. The state governments cannot offer concessions for SEZs.

4. The performance of the SEZ units are periodically monitored by the Ministry of Finance.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Relevance: The question is important for understanding Centre–State roles and approval mechanisms. Aspirants must read about SEZ in brief. It is frequently in current affairs, which makes this topic crucial for UPSC prelims.

Explanation:

— As the West Asia war entered its fifth week, the government on Wednesday implemented concessions for Special Economic Zones (SEZs) announced during the Union Budget 2026-27. SEZ manufacturers have been facing pressures amid global geopolitical tensions and the US tariff impact from last year. This “one-time concession” will remain in place from April 1, 2026, to March 31, 2027, the government said.

— According to the sezindia.gov.in –

— “The functioning of the SEZs is governed by a three tier administrative set up. The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce. The Approval Committee at the Zone level deals with approval of units in the SEZs and other related issues. Each Zone is headed by a Development Commissioner, who is ex-officio chairperson of the Approval Committee. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Once an SEZ has been approved by the Board of Approval and Central Government has notified the area of the SEZ, units are allowed to be set up in the SEZ. All the proposals for setting up of units in the SEZ are approved at the Zone level by the Approval Committee consisting of Development Commissioner, Customs Authorities and representatives of State Government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— All post approval clearances including grant of importer-exporter code number, change in the name of the company or implementing agency, broad banding diversification, etc. are given at the Zone level by the Development Commissioner.

— The performance of the SEZ units are periodically monitored by the Approval Committee and units are liable for penal action under the provision of Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, in case of violation of the conditions of the approval.” Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— While SEZs are administered by central law, state governments play an important supportive role. They can offer extra incentives like subsidised land, stamp duty exemptions, electricity duty waivers, and municipal tax breaks. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the power generation, consider the following statements:

1. Power generated from gas-based units is cheaper than coal and renewable energy.

2. Coal-based power plants dominate India’s electricity generation mix, contributing over 70%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question checks conceptual clarity on energy economics. It is important for students to understand India’s energy mix and dependency patterns. Aspirants must also read about the contribution of renewable energy.

Explanation:

— As India heads into a “hotter-than-normal” summer, with forecasts pointing to an above-average number of heatwave days, the government plans to rely more on coal-based power to meet peak summer demand.

— Coal-based power plants already dominate India’s electricity generation mix, contributing over 70%. Gas contributes around 1-2% in the country’s overall power generation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Power generated from gas-based units is typically more expensive than coal and renewable energy. However, due to their flexibility, they are generally used during high-demand periods, such as peak summer months when cooling demand surges, to meet evening peak demand. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— In the past, the government has invoked emergency measures to ensure utilities operate both gas and coal plants at full capacity when soaring temperatures push electricity consumption to record levels.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is:

(a) a long-term concessional loan provided by the International Monetary Fund to member countries for balance of payments crises.

(b) a grant-in-aid released by the Ministry of Finance to states for infrastructure development without repayment obligations.

(c) a mechanism through which the Reserve Bank of India directly finances fiscal deficits of the government on a permanent basis.

(d) a short-term interest-bearing advance – to the Governments, to meet temporary mismatches in their receipts and payments.

Relevance: The WMA is an important finance tool. The question tests conceptual clarity on government financing instruments and fiscal management tools. UPSC may ask questions on specific terms, which are frequently in news. Aspirants must read about these terms in detail.

Explanation:

— The Reserve Bank has well defined obligations and provides several banking services to the Governments. As a banker to the Government, the Reserve Bank receives and pays money on behalf of the various Government Departments. It provides Ways and Means Advances – a short-term interest-bearing advance – to the Governments, to meet temporary mismatches in their receipts and payments.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: http://www.rbi.org.in)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the MGNREGS in the 2025–26, consider the following statements:

1. The number of households that availed MGNREGS in the 2025–26 fiscal year was higher than last year.

2. The figure for the 2025-26 fiscal year does not include Assam’s beneficiaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question tests awareness of recent trends in flagship schemes like MGNREGA. Aspirants must focus on data interpretation and exceptions in official reporting. As it is linked with current affairs, which makes it an important pick for UPSC.

Explanation:

— As the NDA government moves to replace the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) with the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (GRAMIN).

— The official data shows that 5.32 crore households availed the scheme in the 2025–26 fiscal year, an 8 per cent decline from the previous year. The number of households that availed MGNREGS in the 2025–26 fiscal year was lower than last year’s 5.78 crore. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The figure for the 2025-26 fiscal year does not include West Bengal’s beneficiaries, as no work was taken up under MGNREGS in the state. In 2025-26, MGNREGS demand was higher only during May-June compared to the corresponding months of the previous fiscal year, while it was lower in the other months. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post UPSC Lifebloods | Daily subject-wise quiz : Economy MCQs on aviation fuel, Ways and Means Advances and more appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.