BTSC Laboratory Assistant Examination 2026: Short Details

Vacancy Details

How To Fill BTSC Laboratory Assistant Online Form 2026

• Interested candidates who wish to apply for the BTSC post can submit their application online before 06 May 2026.
• Use the click here link provided below under important link section to apply directly.
• Alternatively, visit the official website of BTSC to complete the application process online.
• Make sure to complete the application before the deadline 06 May 2026.
• Note: Students are requested to read the official notification carefully before filling the form and then fill the form. । (Last Date, Age Limit, & Education Qualification)

Mode Of Selection

• Written Examination
• Document Verification
• Medical Examination

BTSC Laboratory Assistant Examination 2026: Details

BTSC Laboratory Assistant Salary 2026: Salary

The salary for Bihar BTSC Laboratory Assistant posts will be provided as per the pay scale prescribed by the Bihar Government. The salary structure may include components such as basic pay, dearness allowance (DA), house rent allowance (HRA), and other applicable benefits.

Along with financial security, candidates will also get the advantage of a permanent government job, career growth opportunities, and additional benefits as per state government norms. The detailed salary structure and pay level will be clarified in the official detailed notification to be released on the BTSC website.

SOME USEFUL IMPORTANT LINKS

The post BTSC Laboratory Assistant Vacancy 2026 | Apply Online from 6th April 2026 | 1091 Posts appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

Take a look at the essential concepts, terms, quotes, or phenomena every day and brush up on your knowledge. Here’s your hunk of knowledge on ethanol production for today.

Hunk of Knowledge: Ethanol production

Subject: Economy and Policy

(Relevance: In UPSC Prelims, questions have been asked on the production of biofuels; do check them at the end of the article. As the crude oil crisis looms amidst Iran vs Israel-US War, it is important to comprehensively understand India’s Ethanol push- from production, processing to government support.)

Why in the news?

While speaking at the inauguration of Phase I of the Noida International Airport (NIA)in Jewar, Prime Minister Narendra Modi referred to India’s ethanol push helping the country through the global energy crisis.

“If production of ethanol had not increased, and its blending with petrol, then the country would have had to import an additional 4.5 crore barrels, which is almost 700 crore litres of crude oil, every year…,” he had said.

Key takeaways:

1. Ethanol, or ethyl alcohol, is a liquid that has several uses. At 95% purity, it is called rectified spirit and is used as the intoxicating ingredient in alcoholic beverages. At 99%-plus purity, ethanol is used for blending with petrol.

2. Ethanol is a common type of biofuel, a renewable fuel derived from biomass, from plants or agricultural, animal, domestic, and industrial bio waste. Biofuels are significantly cleaner than conventional fossil fuels, though lifecycle impacts vary based on feedstock and production methods.

When ethanol is produced from these sources, it is called bioethanol (a subset of Ethanol). Bioethanol can be easily generated from sugarcane, beet juice, corn, rice, or other grains. These fuels are known as first-generation biofuels.

Different generations of Biofuels

According to the National Policy on Biofuels, different generations of Biofuels are:

(i) First Generation (1G) produces bio-ethanol from molasses and bio-diesel from non-edible oilseeds.

(ii) Second-generation (2G) ethanol can be produced from municipal solid waste

(iii) Third Generation (3G) fuels like bio-CNG

Ethanol Production from sugarcane

1. Ethanol is produced from molasses, which is a by product of sugar manufacturing. For making sugar, mills crush sugarcane, which typically has a total fermentable sugar (TFS) content of 14%. The TFS component consists of sucrose along with the reducing sugars glucose and fructose. Most of this TFS component gets crystallised into sugar, and the remaining part is called molasses.

2. The molasses go through three stages — A, B, and C, the last one being where the molasses are most uncrystallised and non-recoverable. The ‘C’ molasses roughly constitute 4.5% of the cane, and has a remaining TFS of 40%.

After C-molasses are sent to the distillery, ethanol is extracted from them. Every 100 kg of TFS yields 60 litres of ethanol. Thus, from one tonne of cane, mills can produce 115 kg of sugar (at 11.5% recovery) and 45 kg of molasses (18 kg TFS), which gives 10.8 litres of ethanol.

3. In between the two extreme cases, there are intermediate options as well, where the cane juice does not have to be crystallised right till the final ‘C’ molasses stage. The molasses can, instead, be diverted after the earlier ‘A’ and ‘B’ stages of sugar crystal formation. Mills, then, would produce some sugar, as opposed to fermenting the whole sugarcane juice into ethanol.

If ethanol is manufactured using ‘B’ heavy molasses (7.25% of cane and with TFS of 50%), around 21.75 litres will be produced along with 95 kg of sugar from every 1 tonne of cane.

4. Till 2017-18, mills produced ethanol only from so-called C-heavy molasses, the final dark brown liquid by product of cane processing containing sucrose that cannot be further economically recovered and crystallised into sugar.

5. From the 2018-19 supply year, mills began making ethanol from an earlier ‘B-heavy’ stage molasses (having higher sucrose content available for fermentation) and also directly from whole cane juice or syrup.

6. The result: Between 2013-14 and 2018-19, the total supply of ethanol to oil marketing companies (OMC) shot up from a mere 38 crore to nearly 189 crore litres. The all-India average ethanol blending in petrol, too, rose from 1.6% to over 4.9%.

Ethanol production from other cereal grains

7. From 2018-19, the government also fixed separate ex-distillery prices for ethanol derived from rice, maize, and damaged food grains.

8. In molasses or cane juice, sugar is present in the form of sucrose. In cereal grains, starch is available, which is a complex carbohydrate. Starch from cereal grains is first extracted and broken down into simple sugars before further fermentation, distillation, and dehydration to ethanol with 99.99% alcohol concentration.

9. While the ethanol blending is seen as a step towards reducing India’s crude oil imports, which is significant amidst the Iran vs Israel-US war, leading to disruption of oil imports from the Strait of Hormuz.

Experts have highlighted concerns related to increased water use in sugarcane cultivation, the fiscal costs of subsidies, and concerns over diverting food crops for fuel. According to energy analysts and industry reports, ethanol is vital, but it should be seen as part of a broader energy transition strategy rather than a standalone solution.

Government Initiatives

National Policy on Biofuel, 2018

It provides an indicative target of 20% ethanol blending under the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme by 2030. The Minister of State in the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas informed the Rajya Sabha in December 2025 that the Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) had achieved the target of 10% Ethanol blending in petrol in June 2022, ahead of the set deadline.

Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana

This scheme was launched by the government in 2019. This scheme provides financial assistance for setting up Advanced Biofuels projects in the country using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock, multimodal transportation of ethanol and increasing ethanol storage capacity, along with other allied infrastructure for handling higher blends of ethanol.

 Global Biofuel Alliance

It was launched in 2023 to facilitate international cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels, along with facilitating global biofuels trade and technical support for national biofuel programmes.

BEYOND THE HUNK: Other sustainable fuels that are in the news

1.Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF): Last year, Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) became the first company in India to receive the ISCC CORSIA certification for SAF production at its Panipat refinery in Haryana.

AF is a biofuel that is produced from sustainable feedstocks and has chemistry similar to conventional aviation turbine fuel (ATF) or jet fuel, which is derived from crude oil. It is a ‘drop-in’ fuel, meaning it can be blended with ATF without requiring any change in the existing machinery of aircraft.

2.Advanced Sustainable Fuel (ASF):New rule changes were brought under the Formula 1 race season 2026, which require the internal combustion engine of the F1 race car to use the ‘advanced sustainable fuel’. It is sourced from sustainable feedstocks that are not in competition with food crops.

These feedstocks include municipal waste and non-food biomass; the fuel can also be produced using technologies like carbon capture, harnessing carbon from the air and industrial emissions. The advanced sustainable fuel must be a drop-in fuel, meaning it should be designed to replace fossil fuels without requiring any engine adjustments.

Post Read Question

According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (2020)

1. Cassava

2. Damaged wheat grains

3. Groundnut seeds

4. Horse gram

5. Rotten potatoes

6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post Hunk of Knowledge | PM Modi’s Pushes Ethanol at Jewar airport: Why this biofuel is important for UPSC exam appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

India Friday inducted its third nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), INS Aridaman, significantly strengthening its sea-based nuclear deterrent capabilities. Additionally, the Indian Navy also commissioned the advanced stealth frigate INS Taragiri at a separate ceremony.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh presided over both the commissioning ceremonies.

While there is no official word yet on the commissioning of INS Aridaman, Singh, in a cryptic post on X Friday morning, described the SSBN as “not words, but power.”

With INS Aridaman’s induction, India will have three operational ballistic missile submarines at sea for the first time. The indigenous SSBN is designed to carry more long-range nuclear-tipped missiles than INS Arihant and INS Arighaat, which were commissioned in 2016 and 2024, respectively.

INS Aridaman will join its predecessors as a key component of India’s nuclear triad, which refers to a country’s ability to launch nuclear missiles from platforms in the air, land, and at sea. India is part of a select group of countries with nuclear triad capabilities. These include the United States, Russia, China, and France.

The US operates 14 Ohio-class SSBNs and 53 fast-attack submarines. China, in comparison, has 12 nuclear submarines, including six nuclear-powered attack submarines.

INS Arighaat is significantly more technologically advanced than INS Arihant, as its construction involved advanced design and manufacturing technology, detailed research and development, utilisation of special materials, complex engineering, and highly skilled workmanship, according to the Ministry of Defence.

However, INS Aridaman, a larger 7,000-tonne vessel, will carry more K-15 missiles, as well as the longer-range K-4 nuclear-capable submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBM) that can hit targets 3,500 km away.

A fourth SSBN is also under construction, and both will be able to carry more K-4 missiles due to their larger size.

The induction of INS Aridaman was expected, with Navy Chief Admiral Dinesh Tripathi stating in December last year that India will commission its third nuclear submarine soon and that it is in the final stages of trials.

India is also pursuing a nuclear-powered attack submarine (SSN) programme. The Navy plans to build two SSBNs indigenously and acquire one on lease from Russia, which is expected to arrive by 2027-28, bridging the capability gap until India’s own boats are ready.

India’s nuclear-powered submarine project began over three decades ago, involving the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and private firms, with assistance from Russia.

India is committed to using nuclear weapons solely for deterrence and retaliation, and the capability to survive a nuclear attack and then respond with a strike makes a nuclear submarine a very powerful deterrent.

The post Not words, but power : India inducts nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine INS Aridhaman appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

Punjab Chief Minister Bhagwant Mann has weighed in on the growing row within the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP), reacting sharply to the removal of Rajya Sabha MP Raghav Chadha from the post of deputy leader in the Upper House.

On Friday, April 3, Mann alleged that Chadha was “compromised” with the BJP, suggesting that his conduct in Parliament had raised concerns within the party.

Leader Seems to Be Speaking From Another Station

Defending the party’s decision, Mann said that when AAP sets priorities for issues to be raised in the Rajya Sabha, its leaders are expected to follow that line. However, he criticised Chadha for focusing on less significant matters.

“If the party decides certain issues should be raised in the Rajya Sabha, but a leader speaks about samosa prices in the canteen, it feels like he is speaking from another station,” Mann said. He added that in such situations, the party is compelled to take action.

AAP Replaces Chadha With Ashok Mittal

The controversy erupted after AAP formally wrote to the Rajya Sabha Secretariat seeking Chadha’s removal as deputy leader and proposed Punjab MP Ashok Mittal as his replacement.

According to sources, the party also indicated in its communication that Chadha should not be allotted speaking time from AAP’s designated quota in the House. Chadha, a Rajya Sabha member from Punjab, was once considered a close confidant of party chief Arvind Kejriwal.

Bharadwaj Questions Chadha’s Approach in Parliament

The internal criticism has not been limited to Mann. Senior AAP leader Saurabh Bharadwaj also publicly took aim at Chadha, urging him to adopt a more assertive stance against the BJP-led central government.

Responding to Chadha’s video message after his removal, Bharadwaj questioned why the MP was not raising pressing issues concerning Punjab and the country, instead focusing on what he termed “soft PR”.

“Raghav bhai, I just watched your video. We are all soldiers of Arvind Kejriwal ji. We learned only one thing: the one who gets scared is as good as dead. Our job is to raise people’s issues and question the government directly,” he said.

Bharadwaj argued that the government does not respond to “soft PR speeches” and stressed that the limited speaking time available to smaller parties in Parliament should be used to address major national concerns rather than “trivial issues”.

The post Raghav Chadha ‘Compromised’ With BJP, Alleges Punjab CM Bhagwant Mann, Defends AAP’s Action appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

QUESTION 1

With reference to the stages of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, consider the following pairs:

1. First stage – This stage in the PSLV involves the famous, indigenously developed Vikas engine and a liquid fuel.

2. Second stage – This stage uses a solid propellant as fuel.

3. Third stage – This stage is related to rapid acceleration.

How many of the pairs given above are correctly marked?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Relevance: The question on PSLV is important for USPC prelims, as it is frequently in news. The question tests understanding of basic space technology and stage-wise functioning of rockets. Aspirants should also read about GSLV and SSLV.

Explanation:

— The PSLV, or Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, is what is known as a four-stage rocket. The stages refer to different parts of the rocket, each of which have their own engines and fuel. Each of these stages sequentially take charge of propelling the mission. They get detached and discarded after doing their job. The stages are sometimes also used to refer to the different phases of the mission flight.

— The first stage involves the lift-off. This is a near vertical journey till an altitude of about 50-60 km. This is the stage that requires the most work because the rocket has to fight gravity as well as atmospheric drag. For this reason, this stage needs a very heavy engine and lots of fuel.

— In the case of the PSLV, the first stage uses a solid propellant as fuel. The first stage forms a large part of the rocket, and constitutes the bulk of its weight. This stage lasts barely two minutes, during which a huge amount of fuel is consumed. After the fuel is spent, this part of the rocket becomes deadweight. So, it is jettisoned. It detaches from the main body of the rocket, and falls off, passing the baton to the second stage. Hence, pair 1 is not correct.

— During the second stage, the rocket continues to move vertically — and horizontally at the same time as it prepares to get into orbit. The second stage in the PSLV involves the famous, indigenously developed Vikas engine and a liquid fuel. This stage takes the vehicle to about 220-250 km from Earth’s surface before burning out. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.

— In the third stage, the vehicle is moving almost entirely horizontally, going around the Earth in an orbit, or rather a sub-orbital trajectory. To maintain this trajectory, and avoid falling towards the Earth, it needs to travel at very high velocities, usually 26,000 to 28,000 km per hour. The third stage is, therefore, about rapid acceleration. The PSLV rocket burns solid fuel to achieve this. Hence, pair 3 is correct.

— The vehicle begins to go around the Earth at very high speeds, but does not yet reach its designated orbit. That happens in the fourth stage, which involves precisely placing the satellite in the intended orbit.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the cosmic rays, consider the following statements:

1. These are particles of which mostly are protons.

2. Cosmic rays travel in straight lines.

3. Cosmic rays originate only from the Sun.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: Topics like Cosmic rays are important due to their link with space research. Aspirants must learn about basic physics concepts and sources of radiation. UPSC can frame conceptual traps to check scientific reasoning and elimination skills.

Explanation:

— The cosmic rays aren’t rays at all. They’re particles: mostly protons, but also helium nuclei, electrons, and occasionally heavier atomic nuclei stripped bare of their electrons. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— They travel through interstellar space carrying enormous amounts of energy packed into something far smaller than an atom.

— The highest-energy cosmic rays, however, remain a genuine mystery. These particles arrive carrying energies so extreme that they shouldn’t even exist – at those energies, particles should interact with the cosmic microwave background radiation permeating all of space and lose energy over long distances.

— Because cosmic rays are charged particles, they don’t travel in straight lines. Magnetic fields – both inside our galaxy and beyond – bend their paths, scrambling their directions over the vast distances they travel. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Cosmic rays come from sources like supernova explosions, pulsars, and active galactic nuclei. Smaller fractions are emitted during solar flares. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Ingenuity Mars Helicopter, consider the following statements:

1. It has completed the first powered and controlled flight on the Red Planet.

2. It has been developed by Nasa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question on Ingenuity Mars Helicopter is important for current affairs-based prelims questions. UPSC can ask factual questions on milestones in space exploration and innovations.

Explanation:

— On April 19, 2021, NASA’s Ingenuity Mars Helicopter made history when it completed the first powered, controlled flight on the Red Planet. It flew for the last time on Jan. 18, 2024.

— The helicopter completed 72 flights across nearly three years.

— Nasa’s Skyfall mission, expected to launch in December 2028, will include three small helicopters, inspired by Ingenuity, which made history as the first aircraft to fly on another planet.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: science.nasa.gov)

QUESTION 4

The term ‘Petaflop’ refers to a:

(a) unit of computing speed equal to one quadrillion floating-point operations per second

(b) unit of data storage used in supercomputers

(c) type of processor architecture designed for parallel computing

(d) measure of energy efficiency in high-performance computing systems

Relevance: The terms like Petaflop are in news due to advancements in supercomputing. The question tests basic awareness of units related to computing. Aspirants must know about these terms and should be able to distinguish between such terms.

Explanation:

— The National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) is executed and managed jointly by DST and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). NSM aims to empower our national academic and R&D institutions across the country by enabling High-Performance Computing (HPC) infrastructures of varied sizes.

— As of now, 39 Petaflops of supercomputers have been built in 37 sites. The most recent infrastructure generation is based on indigenous advancements such as the Rudra server and software stacks. Through NSM, the GoI seeks to reach out to the country’s broad scientific and technological community and provide the country with HPC capacity to solve multidisciplinary grand challenge problems.

— A petaflop (PFLOPS) is a unit of computing speed equal to one quadrillion floating-point operations per second.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: pib.gov.in)

QUESTION 5

Which of the planets among the solar system have only one moon?

1. Uranus

2. Earth

3. Mars

4. Jupiter

5. Neptune

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 5 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Relevance: These types of questions seem easy, but test fundamental astronomy concepts. It will also help in getting clarity on static GK linked with current space missions and discoveries.

Explanation:

— A new set of moons has been discovered orbiting Jupiter and Saturn, raising the number of these celestial bodies to 101 and 285, respectively. The discovery is part of the growing list of natural satellites in the solar system, which now has a total of 442 moons.

— The additions include four new moons of Jupiter and 11 of Saturn, formally reported by the Minor Planet Centre, which tracks and verifies small celestial objects.

— Across the solar system, the numbers continue to rise. Earth has one moon, Mars two, Uranus 28, and Neptune 16, while Venus and Mercury have none.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post UPSC Lifebloods | Daily subject-wise quiz : Science and Technology MCQs on stages of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, cosmic rays and more appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

UPSC Lifebloods brings to you its initiative for the practice of Mains answer writing. It covers essential topics of static and dynamic parts of the UPSC Civil Services syllabus covered under various GS papers. This answer-writing practice is designed to help you as a value addition to your UPSC CSE Mains. Attempt today’s answer writing on questions related to topics of GS-2 to check your progress.

QUESTION 1

What are the major areas of contention between developed and developing nations in WTO negotiations?

Relevance: The topic highlights ongoing challenges in the global trade order, especially disputes in the World Trade Organisation. It also reflects contemporary issues like protectionism, regional integration, and supply chain shifts, which can be asked in mains. It links to issues like subsidies, S&DT, and reform of multilateral institutions.

Note: This is not a model UPSC answer. It only provides you with a thought process which you may incorporate into the answers.

Introduction:

— The Director-General of the World Trade Organisation (WTO), Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala, kick-started the 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) in Cameroon with a warning, stating that the world trading system is experiencing the “worst disruptions” in 80 years.

— The developed and developing countries have arrived at MC14 with starkly different visions for the multilateral body facing a crisis of confidence, at a time when trade tensions are already running high.

Body:

You may incorporate some of the following points in your answer:

Major areas of contention between developed and developing nations in WTO negotiations

Multilateralism vs Plurilateralism

— One of the sharpest divisions between members is on how future agreements should be reached. Since its inception, the WTO has operated primarily on a consensus-based decision-making model, where all 166 members must agree on decisions. However, several developed nations are seeking plurilateral agreements, where members can sign agreements among themselves without including all countries, arguing that progress is slow in the consensus-based method.

— Developing countries such as India, Indonesia, Vietnam, and Namibia have insisted that the WTO must remain a “member-driven” and “consensus-based” organisation. India said that the incorporation of plurilateral outcomes into the WTO framework should not impair existing rights of non-parties or cast additional obligations on them. Namibia also argued that for small economies, multilateral rules are an “economic necessity”. However, the US, European Union and the UK have advocated for a “more flexible framework” that allows like-minded partners to move forward with closer cooperation when a full consensus cannot be reached.

Conflict over Special and Differential Treatment

— It is a provision in the WTO agreement that gives developing countries more time or flexibility to implement rules, such as phasing out certain subsidies.

— Developed countries have pushed for a relook at S&DT, but developing nations consider it the bedrock of multilateralism. Developing nations such as India and Namibia have maintained that S&DT is a “treaty-based right” and must be “precise, effective and operational” to enable their meaningful participation in global trade. S&DT must be safeguarded as a treaty-based right and as an enabler for developing Members to participate meaningfully in and fully benefit from the multilateral trading system.

Agriculture and e-commerce

— Consensus at the WTO on key issues has also been elusive because countries, based on their respective growth stages, are making agriculture or digital trade key priorities. While developing nations, such as India and other African countries, have raised a strong demand for food subsidies, rich countries have focused on e-commerce.

— The US, UK, and Singapore have for years prioritised the digital economy and have been pushing to make the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions (products like software) permanent to provide “certainty” for businesses. India, however, has focused on keeping this policy space intact and argued that the issue warrants “careful reconsideration” because its long-term implications for developing states are not fully understood.

Conclusion:

— However, the division is not limited to the most powerful countries. Developed, developing and Least Developed Countries (LDCs) have pitched divergent ideas on core issues such as plurilateral deals, agriculture, e-commerce moratorium, as well as dispute settlement, indicating why effective outcomes from WTO ministerials have been few and far between in recent years.

(Source: From farm to software, how fresh WTO talks expose deep faultlines between rich and developing nations)

Points to Ponder

How is rising protectionism reshaping global trade and supply chains?

What reforms are needed to strengthen WTO’s dispute resolution and negotiation mechanisms?

Related Previous Year Question

What are the key areas of reform if the WTO has to survive in the present context of ‘Trade War’, especially keeping in mind the interest of India? (2018)

QUESTION 2

Evaluate the role of trade policy in shaping India’s relations with its neighbours.

Relevance: The topic is directly related to India’s neighbourhood policy and regional diplomacy. Aspirants must focus on India’s negotiating stance in global and regional forums. It is also useful for analysing challenges in South Asian integration and bilateral ties.

Note: This is not a model UPSC answer. It only provides you with a thought process which you may incorporate into the answers.

Introduction:

— India, with its huge and growing market, technology and entrepreneurial resources, has the potential to play a significant role in accelerating industrial and economic growth in surrounding countries, particularly Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.

— Over the last five decades, India has contributed to the development of adjacent nations through various assistance initiatives, such as the ITEC programme, the plan of support to neighbouring countries, grants, technical assistance, and trade preferences, among others.

Body:

You may incorporate some of the following points in your answer:

— Bangladesh: The elections in February handed Tarique Rahman and the Bangladesh Nationalist Party a massive mandate. Over the last decade, Bangladesh has emerged as India’s most important neighbourhood partner. The deep economic interdependence built over this period appears to have survived the political toxicity of the last 20 months, but the relationship now needs fresh political impetus.

— Nepal: The sweeping victory of the Rastriya Swatantra Party and the rise of Balendra Shah mark a generational political shift. India must shed the rhetoric of a “special relationship” in favour of one grounded in equality and genuine respect for Nepal’s sovereignty.

— Sri Lanka: It has been moving toward pragmatic engagement with Delhi and breaking free from the historical political animosity that long coloured the ruling party’s relationship with India.

— Over the past two years, India has demonstrated a new willingness to negotiate ambitious trade agreements — with the United Kingdom, the European Union, the United States, and others — shedding many past shibboleths of trade policy. That same reforming instinct must now be extended to the neighbourhood.

— For decades, India’s regional trade policy has been hobbled by self-defeating protectionism. Despite the 4,000-kilometre border with Bangladesh and a narrow Palk Strait separating peninsular India from Sri Lanka, the West remains the main destination for their exports while China is the dominant source of imports. India remains Nepal’s largest trading partner — but barely.

— India objects to its massive trade deficit with China yet runs substantial surpluses with Bangladesh, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. India finds it difficult to offer its neighbours the very market access it demands from Beijing. A genuine transformation of connectivity between India, Bangladesh, and Nepal would provide a major boost to South Asia’s poorest parts in the eastern Subcontinent. This transformation will require both unilateral steps by Delhi and negotiated give-and-take.

Conclusion:

— The rapidly changing international context makes early action on neighbourhood trade urgent. This global uncertainty creates a new regional logic. For Bangladesh, Nepal, and Sri Lanka, the Indian market offers scale and proximity that no distant partner can match.

— Turbulence in the Gulf is beginning to have a deleterious impact across South Asia. As the Subcontinent’s deep energy, economic, and diasporic ties with the Gulf come under stress, India has begun supporting its neighbours with the supply of essential hydrocarbon commodities.

(Source: India must reboot neighbourhood policy — trade is the key)

Points to Ponder

What are the key barriers to deeper regional trade integration in South Asia?

Related Previous Year Questions

‘China is using its economic relations and positive trade surplus as tools to develop potential military power status in Asia’. In the light of this statement, discuss its impact on India as her neighbour. (2017)

Project ‘Mausam’ is considered a unique foreign policy initiative of Indian Government to improve relationship with its neighbours. Does the project have a strategic dimension? Discuss. (2015)

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post UPSC Lifebloods | Mains answer practice – GS 2 : WTO talks and Neighbourhood relations appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

UPSC Lifebloods brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.

QUESTION 1

The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of —

1. elected members of both Houses of Parliament

2. nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.

3. elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States

4. elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Relevance: The composition of the Electoral College of the President is a frequently tested static polity topic in UPSC Prelims. It strengthens conceptual clarity on constitutional procedures related to high offices like the President. Students must also read how the Vice-President is elected.

Explanation:

— The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of —

(a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and

(b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, including Union territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

— Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are not part of the Electoral College.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 2

Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the “one person, one vote, one value” principle?

(a) Article 327

(b) Article 326

(c) Article 81

(d) Article 86

Relevance: It helps in understanding concepts behind delimitation and fair representation. It can be useful for eliminating options by linking constitutional articles with core democratic principles.

Explanation:

— Article 81 of the Constitution provides for the “one person, one vote, one value” principle. Article 81 (2) (a) says, “There shall be allotted to each State a number of seats in the House of the People in such manner that the ratio between that number and the population of the state is, so far as practicable, the same for all States.”

— Article 81 (2) (b) says, “Each State shall be divided into territorial constituencies in such manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and number of seats allotted to it is, so far as practicable, the same throughout the State.”

— The only exception the Article makes to the norm is for very small states with a population not exceeding 6 million, so that they can still get proper representation in the Lower House despite their small population.

— Article 82 of the Constitution states: “Upon the completion of each census, the allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the division of each State into territorial constituencies shall be readjusted by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine.”

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the adoptive mothers, consider the following statements:

1. The mothers who adopt a child shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over to her.

2. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and its successor, the Code of Social Security, 2020, were both amended to include adoptive mothers within the scope of maternity leave.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Relevance: The issues related to maternity benefits and labour welfare are important for UPSC Prelims. It also reflects the government’s focus on social justice, gender equity, and inclusive policy design.

Explanation:

— The Supreme Court held that motherhood under the law cannot depend on the age of a child at the time of adoption, striking down a rule that denied maternity leave to women adopting children older than three months.

— The bench comprising Justices JB Pardiwala and R Mahadevan held that the law’s three-month cut-off created an “artificial” distinction between adoptive mothers, noting that women adopting older children are “similarly situated” in terms of their “roles, responsibilities and caregiving obligations”.

— The court held that mothers who adopt a child “shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over to her.” Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and its successor, the Code of Social Security, 2020, were both amended to include adoptive mothers within the scope of maternity leave. The carve-out was that only those women who adopted a child below the age of three months would qualify for twelve weeks of leave. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Section 60(4) of the 2020 Code states that “ a woman who legally adopts a child below the age of three months or a commissioning mother shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over.”

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State, if he/she —

1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India

2. voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State

3. an undischarged insolvent

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Relevance: Disqualification provisions under Constitution of India are frequently tested in UPSC Prelims. It is also important for conceptual clarity on terms like office of profit, insolvency, and citizenship in exam questions. Aspirants should also read about the 10th schedule of the Constitution of India.

Explanation:

— A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule, other than an office declared by the Legislature of the State by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

Which of the following states is not covered under the Article 371 and its sub-parts of the Constitution of India for special provision?

(a) Nagaland

(b) Gujarat

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Relevance: Questions on special provisions under Article 371 of the Constitution of India can be asked to test constitutional awareness. It is important for static polity preparation. Aspirants must be aware of such constitutional facts.

Explanation:

— Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides for the special provision with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat.

— Article 371(A) – Nagaland

— Article 371(B) – Assam

— Article 371(C) – Manipur

— Article 371(D) – Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

— Article 371(E) – Establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh

— Article 371(F) – Sikkim

— Article 371(G) – Mizoram

— Article 371(H) – Arunachal Pradesh

— Article 371(I) – Goa

— Article 371(J) – Karnataka

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post UPSC Lifebloods | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on electoral college of the President of India, disqualification from the Legislative Assembly and more appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

Take a look at the essential events, concepts, terms, quotes, or phenomena every day and brush up your knowledge. Here’s your UPSC Current Affairs hunk of knowledge for today on Copper.

Hunk of Knowledge: Copper- Properties, uses, and distribution

Subject: Economy and Science & Technology

(Relevance: Given copper’s latest fall in the global economy, it becomes important to know about this red metal not only from an economic standpoint but also through properties, consumption and geographical perspectives.)

Why in the news?

After hitting an all-time high earlier this year, copper prices on the London Metal Exchange have been sliding as the West Asia conflict weighs on the metal’s demand outlook. From $14,527.50 per tonne in late January, the price of three-month copper futures contract had cooled to $13,343.5 per tonne on February 27, just before the US and Israel attacked Iran. Since then, the three-month futures contract has fallen sharply to around $12,147 on the London Metal Exchange. 

In this context, it becomes important to not only know why copper is seen as a barometer of the economic health of a country but also understand its properties, uses and distribution. 

Key Takeaways:

1. Copper is a soft, malleable and ductile metal with very high thermal and electrical conductivity. It is one of the few metals that occur in nature in directly usable metallic form (native metals).

2. It is an important non-ferrous base metal with wide industrial applications. Copper is essential to the modern economy, with uses ranging from housing and manufacturing to power grids, clean energy, artificial intelligence and defence. Thus, it is often seen as a barometer of economic health.

3. A rise in copper prices is considered a signal of robust economic growth, while falling prices tend to raise concerns about an economic slowdown.

4. According to industry sources and experts, the recent sharp fall in prices of the red-metal reflects weakening demand prospects amid concerns that higher energy costs from the West Asia conflict could dampen economic growth.

5. According to the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022, India is not self-sufficient in the production of copper ore. In addition to domestic production of ore and concentrates, India imports copper concentrates for its smelters.

6. The domestic demand for copper and its alloys is met through domestic production, recycling of scrap and by imports. Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL), a Public Sector Undertaking, is the only integrated Company in the country that is involved in mining and beneficiation of ore and is engaged in smelting, refining and casting of refined copper.

7. Copper is one of the most recycled metals of all the metals. The recycling of copper scrap is gaining importance worldwide simply because of the fact that recovery of copper metal from scrap requires much less energy than  its recovery made from primary source. It also enables conservation of natural resources.

Distribution of Copper

1. According to the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022, largest reserves/resources of copper ore (52.25%) are in the State of Rajasthan followed by Madhya Pradesh (23.28%) and Jharkhand (15.14%).

2. Copper reserves/resources in Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland,  Odisha, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttarakhand and  West Bengal accounted for the remaining 9.33% of the total  All India resources.

3. As per the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022, the world reserves of copper metal are assessed at 890 million tonnes of copper content. Chile has the largest share, accounting for about 21% of world reserves, followed by Australia (11%), Peru (9%), Russia (7%), Mexico (6%), USA (5%), Congo (Kinshasa), Poland, China & Indonesia (3% each), Kazakhstan & Zambia (2% each) and Canada (1%). The remaining 24% was contributed by other countries.

Uses of Copper

1. According to the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022, the electronic industry is by far the largest consumer of copper, where it is used in the form of cables and winding wires, as it is the best non-precious metal conductor of electricity, encountering much less resistance and being safe for electrical distribution systems from high-voltage transmission cables to microcircuits. Notably, Copper also has relatively high creep strength as compared to other commonly used materials.

2. Copper is used in the construction industry as plumbing, taps, valves and fittings components. In the transportation industry, copper is used in various components.

3. Copper is extensively used in industrial machinery and equipment. It is used in a number of consumer products, such as coinage, utensils, fixtures, etc. Large quantities of copper are consumed in making copper-based alloys, such as brass and bronze.

BEYOND THE HUNK: Substitutes of Copper

1. Copper is vulnerable for substitution on grounds of technical superiority,  price, or weight. Aluminium is used as a substitute for copper in various products, such as electrical power cables, electrical equipment, automobile radiators and cooling/refrigeration tubing. 

2. Optical fiber has substituted copper in some telecommunication applications, and plastics are used as a substitute for copper in water pipes, plumbing, fixtures and many structural applications.

Post Read Question

With reference to copper, consider the following statements:

1. Copper is a non-ferrous metal with high electrical conductivity.

2. It occurs in nature in directly usable metallic form.

3. It is widely used in power grids and microcircuits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(Sources: Behind copper’s latest fall: West Asian conflict weighs on the metal’s demand outlook, ibm.gov.in, Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022 (Part- II : Metals & Alloys)

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

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—  Pushpendra Singh and Archana Singh

India’s economic growth is usually framed around large firms, expanding markets, and rising enterprises. But much of this growth also rests on a sector that largely remains unchanged: the unincorporated non-agricultural sector. It absorbs labour, sustains livelihoods, and supports local demand.

But this raises an important question: does expansion in this sector signal progress or mask the persistence of informality? 

The latest findings from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s (MoSPI) Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) 2025 bring this into focus. Beneath the visible economy lies a vast network of unincorporated, non-agricultural enterprises like small manufacturers, service providers, and trading units.

This sector supports millions of livelihoods and anchors local demand. According to ASUSE, this sector comprises 7.92 crore establishments and employs 12.81 crore workers, which makes it one of the largest sources of work in the country. 

Arithmetic of expansion in scale and employment 

The number of informal establishments has increased from 7.34 crore in 2023-24 to 7.92 crore in 2025, reflecting a growth of nearly 8 per cent. This rise reflects the steady entry and survival of small economic units. A closer look at these numbers also reveals that the distribution of this growth across sectors largely remains unchanged: 27 per cent in manufacturing, 31 per cent in trade, and 42 per cent in ‘services’.

Figure 1 : Expansion of India’s Unincorporated Sector: Establishments, GVA, and Employment (2023-24 to 2025)

Source: Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) 2025 

Further, employment has also expanded to 12.81 crore workers, registering a growth of 6.18 per cent. This confirms the sector’s role as a primary absorber of labour. But the nature of this employment remains unchanged. Around 62 per cent of workers are owner-operators, while only 24 per cent are hired workers. This reveals the nature of growth. Although employment is growing, it is largely driven by self-employment and family labour. The sector generates work, but not stable and wage-based jobs. 

Rising output and value addition 

Alongside the increase in establishments and employment, the sector has also recorded a rise in output. Gross Value Added (GVA) grew by 10.9 per cent between 2023-24 and 2025. The services account for the largest share in GVA (42%) followed by trade (37%) and manufacturing (21%). This indicates increasing activity in buying and selling goods, even without significant transformation.  

While manufacturing is still important, it shows relatively moderate growth. This reflects the continued dominance of small-scale production units that operate with limited capital and technology. This shift toward services and trade suggest a changing structure within the informal economy. It points to the increasing importance of demand-driven, localised services in shaping economic activities.

Figure 2: Sectoral Growth in India’s Unincorporated Economy: Establishments, GVA, and Employment (2023-24 to 2025)

Source: Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) 2025 

Productivity, wages, and earnings 

One of the key indicators of economic progress is productivity. ASUSE 2025 data shows that the per worker GVA – or the difference in the value of inputs used and output produced – increased from 1.49 lakh to 1.56 lakh. Although it registers a growth of about 4.5 per cent, it is down from 5.6 per cent in 2023-24.

In addition, the scale of improvement remains modest. They do not suggest a major shift in technology, skills, or scale of operations. This pattern is consistent with the nature of the sector. Most enterprises operate with limited capital, rely on traditional methods, and serve local markets, without significant changes in factors of productivity. 

The results show a rise in wages in the unincorporated non-agricultural sector, with average annual wage/emolument per hired worker increasing by 3.88 per cent – from 1,41,071 in 2023-24 to 1,46,550 in 2025. However, this increase is relatively small when compared to the growth in GVA. This suggests that the benefits of higher output are not translating into higher earnings for workers. It also reflects the limited bargaining power of labour within informal settings.

Progress of women-owned enterprises

One of the notable trends in ASUSE 2025 is the increase in women-owned proprietary establishments. Their share has risen from 26 per cent to 27 per cent. While this marks progress, the change is modest, largely due to the persistence of some structural barriers. 

Access to credit remains constrained, particularly for women entrepreneurs who lack collateral assets (like land, gold) or formal financial history (like previous loans, bank transactions). Market linkages are often weak, limiting the scale and reach of their enterprises. As a result, many women-led enterprises remain small, home-based, and concentrated in low-value activities. 

How West Asia war poses risks to unorganised sector 

Such structural factors also make the unorganised sector susceptible to external shocks. The ongoing war in West Asia poses a measurable risk to this sector through well-established transmission channels. 

India imports over 80 per cent of its crude oil, with a significant portion sourced from West Asia, specifically via the Strait of Hormuz. The war has led to a sharp increase in fuel prices. The potential rise in transport and input costs is likely to have a corresponding effect on small, unincorporated enterprises operating on thin margins. 

ASUSE 2025 shows that trade and services together account for 80 per cent of GVA in in the informal sector, both of which are highly sensitive to logistics and energy costs. At the same time, remittances from West Asia support household demand in many regions. If these flows weaken, local consumption falls. For the informal sector, such shocks are not external, they are likely to be felt directly.

From counting enterprises to strengthening them 

The most defining feature of the unincorporated sector is its informality. ASUSE data shows that nearly 95 per cent of establishments operate as proprietary or partnership units. This structure has both strengths and limitations. 

On the one hand, it allows for flexibility, low entry barriers, and quick adaptation to changing conditions. On the other hand, it constrains access to formal finance, limits scalability, and reduces the availability of social security for workers. 

The unincorporated sector remains central to India’s economy. Nearly 8 crore enterprises and 12.8 crore workers reflect scale, not strength. The output is rising, but jobs remain informal. The productivity is improving, but at the margin. The women are entering, but not advancing. This is not a story of transformation. This is a story of persistence. 

The question is no longer whether the sector is growing. It is whether it is changing. Until policy shifts from counting enterprises to strengthening them, India’s largest workforce will remain trapped between survival and stagnation.

Post read questions

Growth in the unincorporated sector reflects scale but not structural transformation. Discuss in the context of recent ASUSE findings.

Examine the structural constraints of India’s unincorporated sector and their implications for employment quality and productivity.

Examine the challenges faced by women entrepreneurs in the informal sector, particularly in accessing credit and scaling their enterprises.

Discuss the vulnerability of small, informal enterprises to input cost shocks and suggest measures to enhance their resilience.

Discuss the role of government policy in transitioning informal enterprises into formal and productive units.

Pushpendra Singh is an Assistant Professor of Economics at Somaiya Vidyavihar University, Mumbai, and Archana Singh is an Assistant Professor of Gender and Economics at the International Institute for Population Sciences, Mumbai.

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post Why India’s informal workforce is trapped between survival and stagnation appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.

UPSC Lifebloods brings to you its initiative of subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on the Economy to check your progress.

QUESTION 1

With reference to the aviation fuel, consider the following statements:

1. Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) is a high-quality petrol-based fuel.

2. The sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) is produced from feedstocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question tests basic understanding of fuel types and classifications. It is important due to increasing focus on sustainable fuels and decarbonisation.

Explanation:

— Even as the prices of aviation turbine fuel (ATF), or jet fuel, have surged globally due to the raging West Asia war, the price of the fuel for domestic scheduled flights in India has been hiked only partially by the public sector oil marketing companies (OMCs), according to the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG).

— Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF), sometimes known as jet fuel, is a specialised, high-quality kerosene-based fuel that is refined specifically to power aircraft gas turbine engines. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) is a biofuel that is produced from sustainable feedstocks and has chemistry similar to conventional aviation turbine fuel (ATF) or jet fuel, which is derived from crude oil. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The year 2027 will be an important one for adoption of SAF globally with the mandatory phase of CORSIA kicking in. CORSIA, which applies to international flights, would require airlines globally to offset any growth in carbon dioxide emissions beyond the 2020 levels. India, too, will have to comply with the mandatory phase starting 2027. In line with the CORSIA framework, India’s National Biofuel Coordination Committee (NBCC) has set the initial indicative targets for blending of SAF with jet fuel 2027 onwards, starting with international flights. The indicative targets are: 1 per cent blending in 2027 and 2 per cent in 2028.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Special Economic Zones (SEZs), consider the following statements:

1. The functioning of the SEZs is governed by a three tier administrative set up.

2. All the proposals for setting up of units in the SEZ are approved at the Zone level.

3. The state governments cannot offer concessions for SEZs.

4. The performance of the SEZ units are periodically monitored by the Ministry of Finance.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Relevance: The question is important for understanding Centre–State roles and approval mechanisms. Aspirants must read about SEZ in brief. It is frequently in current affairs, which makes this topic crucial for UPSC prelims.

Explanation:

— As the West Asia war entered its fifth week, the government on Wednesday implemented concessions for Special Economic Zones (SEZs) announced during the Union Budget 2026-27. SEZ manufacturers have been facing pressures amid global geopolitical tensions and the US tariff impact from last year. This “one-time concession” will remain in place from April 1, 2026, to March 31, 2027, the government said.

— According to the sezindia.gov.in –

— “The functioning of the SEZs is governed by a three tier administrative set up. The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce. The Approval Committee at the Zone level deals with approval of units in the SEZs and other related issues. Each Zone is headed by a Development Commissioner, who is ex-officio chairperson of the Approval Committee. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Once an SEZ has been approved by the Board of Approval and Central Government has notified the area of the SEZ, units are allowed to be set up in the SEZ. All the proposals for setting up of units in the SEZ are approved at the Zone level by the Approval Committee consisting of Development Commissioner, Customs Authorities and representatives of State Government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— All post approval clearances including grant of importer-exporter code number, change in the name of the company or implementing agency, broad banding diversification, etc. are given at the Zone level by the Development Commissioner.

— The performance of the SEZ units are periodically monitored by the Approval Committee and units are liable for penal action under the provision of Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, in case of violation of the conditions of the approval.” Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— While SEZs are administered by central law, state governments play an important supportive role. They can offer extra incentives like subsidised land, stamp duty exemptions, electricity duty waivers, and municipal tax breaks. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the power generation, consider the following statements:

1. Power generated from gas-based units is cheaper than coal and renewable energy.

2. Coal-based power plants dominate India’s electricity generation mix, contributing over 70%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question checks conceptual clarity on energy economics. It is important for students to understand India’s energy mix and dependency patterns. Aspirants must also read about the contribution of renewable energy.

Explanation:

— As India heads into a “hotter-than-normal” summer, with forecasts pointing to an above-average number of heatwave days, the government plans to rely more on coal-based power to meet peak summer demand.

— Coal-based power plants already dominate India’s electricity generation mix, contributing over 70%. Gas contributes around 1-2% in the country’s overall power generation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Power generated from gas-based units is typically more expensive than coal and renewable energy. However, due to their flexibility, they are generally used during high-demand periods, such as peak summer months when cooling demand surges, to meet evening peak demand. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— In the past, the government has invoked emergency measures to ensure utilities operate both gas and coal plants at full capacity when soaring temperatures push electricity consumption to record levels.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is:

(a) a long-term concessional loan provided by the International Monetary Fund to member countries for balance of payments crises.

(b) a grant-in-aid released by the Ministry of Finance to states for infrastructure development without repayment obligations.

(c) a mechanism through which the Reserve Bank of India directly finances fiscal deficits of the government on a permanent basis.

(d) a short-term interest-bearing advance – to the Governments, to meet temporary mismatches in their receipts and payments.

Relevance: The WMA is an important finance tool. The question tests conceptual clarity on government financing instruments and fiscal management tools. UPSC may ask questions on specific terms, which are frequently in news. Aspirants must read about these terms in detail.

Explanation:

— The Reserve Bank has well defined obligations and provides several banking services to the Governments. As a banker to the Government, the Reserve Bank receives and pays money on behalf of the various Government Departments. It provides Ways and Means Advances – a short-term interest-bearing advance – to the Governments, to meet temporary mismatches in their receipts and payments.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: http://www.rbi.org.in)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the MGNREGS in the 2025–26, consider the following statements:

1. The number of households that availed MGNREGS in the 2025–26 fiscal year was higher than last year.

2. The figure for the 2025-26 fiscal year does not include Assam’s beneficiaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question tests awareness of recent trends in flagship schemes like MGNREGA. Aspirants must focus on data interpretation and exceptions in official reporting. As it is linked with current affairs, which makes it an important pick for UPSC.

Explanation:

— As the NDA government moves to replace the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) with the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (GRAMIN).

— The official data shows that 5.32 crore households availed the scheme in the 2025–26 fiscal year, an 8 per cent decline from the previous year. The number of households that availed MGNREGS in the 2025–26 fiscal year was lower than last year’s 5.78 crore. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The figure for the 2025-26 fiscal year does not include West Bengal’s beneficiaries, as no work was taken up under MGNREGS in the state. In 2025-26, MGNREGS demand was higher only during May-June compared to the corresponding months of the previous fiscal year, while it was lower in the other months. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Don’t miss | UPSC Current Affairs Pointers of the past week (23–29 March 2026) | UPSC Lifebloods | Hunk of Knowledge

The post UPSC Lifebloods | Daily subject-wise quiz : Economy MCQs on aviation fuel, Ways and Means Advances and more appeared first on Rma News: Latest News, Live Breaking News, Today News, Political News Updates.